Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 03:45
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What are you struggling with in your life? What would you like to have instead?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why are the democrats keep insisting that there are more than two genders?
There's no rule.